Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES APPEARING FOR THE COMPETITIVE WRITTEN TEST OF TWO AND A HALF HOURS DURATION (1030 HOURS TO 1300 HOURS) FOR SELECTION AS EXECUTIVE TRAINEES (TECHNICAL ) .
Kindly appear for the Written Test on the specified Date and Time at the allotted Test Venue.
· Make sure that you occupy the allotted seat at the Test Venue by 0950 hours, which will be displayed on the Notice Board.
· Candidates are required to bring any proof of their identity having their photograph viz Passport, Voters’ ID Card, Driving License, ID Card issued by the Academic Institution last attended etc., for verification, when they come for the Written Test. The Admit Card shall be signed by the Candidates in the presence of the Invigilator. Candidates should affix their passport size photograph on the Admit Card.
· Candidates have to ensure that they return the Admit Card, OMR Answer Sheet and the Question Booklet to the Invigilator after the Written Test, failing which their candidature shall be cancelled.
· The Question Booklets are broadly classified into five Disciplines as indicated below:
1) Aeronautical
2) Mechanical and Production
3) Metallurgy
4) Electrical and Electronics
5) Computer Science
· Each Question Booklet will have 160 Objective Type Questions, as indicated below:
General Awareness
(15 Questions)
General Engineering
(25 Questions)
Questions specific to the respective Disciplines indicated above (120 Questions)
Total
(160 Questions)
15 Marks
25 Marks
120 Marks
160 Marks
Notes
1. The Question Booklet for Mechanical and Production Disciplines will be the same and candidates will have to answer questions for both Mechanical and Production Branches.
2. The Question Booklet for Electrical and Electronics Disciplines will be the same and candidates will have to answer questions for both Electrical and Electronics Branches.
· There are no negative marks for incorrect answers.
· Please use the blank pages provided at the end of the Question Booklet only for any rough work.
· If any Candidate is found to be indulging in any kind of malpractice like copying, trying to talk to other candidates, exchanging information, carrying/passing on chits of paper or any other mode to communicate with others, his/her candidature shall be cancelled.
· Mobile Phones, Pagers, Beepers, any kind of Audio Devices, Digital Diaries, Organisers etc., shall not be permitted inside the Examination Hall.
· Candidates will be required to appear for the Written Test at their own expense and will have to make their own arrangements for boarding and lodging at the place of the Examination.
· Further consideration of the candidature after the Written Test will be subject to:-
1. Candidates having passed the final Engineering Examination in the specified Branches of Engg. indicated in the Advertisement, from any recognised Institution/University, with 60% marks in the Aggregate of all Semesters for General/OBC and 50% Marks in the aggregate of all Semesters for SC/ST Candidates.
2. Verification of Qualifications, Marks scored, Age, Caste (for SC/ST/OBC only), PWD (Person with Disability) /Ex-Servicemen etc.
IMPORTANT
Candidates must ensure that they are in possession of the following documents/items, when they report at the Examination Centre:
· Admit Card (with Passport Size photograph duly affixed).
· Proof of Identity having their photograph such as Passport, Voters’ ID Card, Driving License, ID Card issued by the Academic Institution last attended etc., for verification by the Invigilator.
· HB Pencils, Eraser, Pen and Calculator.
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES FOR ANSWERING ON THE OMR ANSWER SHEET
Use only HB Pencil to mark the Ovals in the Answer Sheet.
Use Ball Point Pen to fill the Boxes (ie for the Question Booklet No., Roll Number, Date of Birth and Signature.)
Indicate the Question Booklet Series and Question Booklet Serial Number in the space provided on the OMR Answer Sheet without fail.
Please mark the relevant Ovals against the columns like Series, Category, Quota and Main Branch of Engineering as applicable to you.
Mark your answer only in the appropriate space against the Number corresponding to the question you are answering. Darken the response for each question:
A B C D
(ie., if the answer to the Question is option A , then it needs to be darkened )
6. Please ensure that the Ovals are completely darkened.
In case of any mistake while marking, please erase the mark completely and fill the correct Oval again. Do not leave stray marks/half filled Ovals on the Answer Sheet.
Rough work must not be done on the Answer Sheet. Use the blank pages given at the end of the Question Booklet for rough work
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1) What is the distance
1) What is the distance between the EHV lines?
a)8m b)11m c)4m d)14m
2) At present how many HVDC lines are there in india?
a)none b)one c)two d)more than two
3) Where is the nuclear located in following places?
ans: i dont remember the answers, but one of them is thalcher(orissa)
4) What is the approximate peak overshoot for a unity feedback system with damping factor 0.6?
a)10% b)5% c)15% d)20%
5) What is the distance between the EHV lines and earth?
a)8m b)11m c)18m d)15m
6) On no load in EHV lines what is the relation between receinving and sending end voltage?
ans: receiving end voltage > sending end voltage
7) What is the surge impedance loading of 400kv line?
ans: 4002/400ohms =400watts
8) similar question with surge impedance given as 160 ohms
ans: 1000watts
9) If both the juctions of transistor are forward biased, in wat region transistor works
ans: saturation region
10) Where is the hydel power plant located in following places?
ans: I dont remember the places
11) self GMD is used in the calculation of_______
a) inductance only
b) inductance and capacitance
c) capacitance only
d) none
12) What is the GMD if the distance between the lines are 6m,6m,12m?
ans: 7.058m( approx)
13) Zero sequence currents doesn't exist in the following fault
a) L-G
b) L-L
c) L-L-G
d) L-L-L-G
Ans: d
14) To avoid arcing connect sutable value of ________ in earthing.
a) capacitance
b) indunctance
c) resistance
d) susceptance
15)There are two to three questions based on Laplace and Inverse Laplace transforms
16)In the following type of conductors the corona is minimum
a) circular
b) stranded
c) helical
d) rectamgular
ans: c
17)When do two wattmeters show same value of opposite readings in two wattmeter method
a) 300 lag
b) 600 lag
c) between 600 and 900 lag
d) zpf lag
ans: d
18) Schering bridge is used to measure
a) frequency
b) inductance
c) capacitance
d) mutual inductance
and: c
19) What is the value of resistance when both length and diameter of the wire are doubled?
ans: halved
20) There is one questions asked on euler's formula..
21) What is the Laplace transform of unit ramp signal?
ans:1/s2
22) What happens to the value of inductance when self GMD is doubled?
23) At what frequency corona loss is more?
a) 50Hz
b) 60Hz
c)
d)
24) What is the largest rating of alternator manufactured in india?
a) 1000MW
b) 500MW
c) 1200MW
d) 250MW
ans:b
25) The response of an RLC circuit for impuse input?
a) exponentially raising
b) sinusoidal
c) exponential falling
d) parabolic
ans: c
26) What is the easier method for finding no. of poles in the right half of s-plane?
a) Niquist plot
b) R-H criterion
c) Root-Locus method
d) Polor plot
ans: b
27) How many no of poles located in the right half of s-plane for the characteristic equation...
28) Burden of current transformers is measured in..
a) Watts
b) Volt Amperes
c) Ampere Hours
d) Joules
29)What is the gate used to get high output when all the inputs are low?
a) NOR
b) NAND
c) Ex-OR
d) Ex-NOR
ans: b
30) Large no of thyristors are used in HVDC transmission to improve______
a) current rating
b) voltage rating
c) Thyristers are available at high ratings
d)
31) What is the line current of a circuit when the current transformer of 1000:5 rating measures 4Amperes?
ans: 800A
32) If the time delay of relay with TMS setting 0.1 is 10 sec, then what is the time delaty when the TMS setting is changed to 0.5
33) How many no of flip-flops are required to get 16 bit counter?
34) _________is connected to reduce frequency errors in ammeter.
a) shunt capacitor
b) series inductance
c) shunt inductance
d)
35)What is the value of ripple factor in Half Wave Rectifier?
a) 1.11
b) 0.8
c) 1.21
d)
36)The principle used in megger?
a) electrostatic effect
b) magnetic effect
c) Induction effect
d)
37)In electrodynamometer type wattmeter the error is due to..
a) pressure coil inductance
b) pressure coil resistance
c)
d)
38) In the following locations where is hydal power plant is not located?
ans: i dont remember the places
39) In distribution lines_____
a) X/R<0.1
b) X/R>10
c) X/R>1
d) X/R<0.01
40) In EHV lines _____
a) X/R=10
b) X/R=100
c)
d)
41) What is the speed of 2 pole alternator at 50Hz frequency?
ans: 3000rpm
42) What is the equivalent decimal no of (624)8
43) What is the binary equivalent of 6.25
44) What is the value of A+AB+B¯ ( B bar)
ans: 1
45) What are the avg and rms values of full wave rectifier
ans: 2Vm/pie, Vm/21/2
46) There is one question based on rank of matrix
47) What is the equivalent of cos(wt+18.750)
a) sin(wt+71.250)
b) sin(wt-71.250)
c) sin(wt+18.250)
d) sin(wt-18.250)
48) The three harmonics will be in phace with each other?_____
a) 3,5,15
b) 2,4,6
c)
d)
ans: a
49) The line current will be equal to phase current in______
ans: delta connection
50) In windmills the frequent problems occur in______
a) mechanical system
b) blades
c) electrodynamic system
d) electric system
51) The machine used in windmills is______
a) alternator
b) induction generator
c)
d)
ans: b
52) Insulators in EHV lines are designed based on_____
a) switching voltages
b) peak voltages
c) corona
d) lightning voltages
ans: a
53) The value of restriking voltage depends on______
a) inductance of line
b) capacitance of line
c) both
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